alan_boon Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 Can anybody explain to me, in simple terms, why Poland & Sweden get two Grands Prix every year? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MARK246 Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 Can anybody explain to me, in simple terms, why Poland & Sweden get two Grands Prix every year? <{POST_SNAPBACK}> Maybe they want to run two, and have the federations help to do it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rob B Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 Because they are two of the most supported nations and their stadiums are smaller. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
alan_boon Posted September 24, 2007 Author Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 Because they are two of the most supported nations and their stadiums are smaller. <{POST_SNAPBACK}> That makes no sense - so if Denmark didn't have Parken or we didn't have the Millennium, we could have two as well? Surely it just gives an advantage to riders who prefer the bigger tracks of Poland and eastern Europe, although it doesn't seem to help Swedes much. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MARK246 Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 That makes no sense - so if Denmark didn't have Parken or we didn't have the Millennium, we could have two as well? Surely it just gives an advantage to riders who prefer the bigger tracks of Poland and eastern Europe, although it doesn't seem to help Swedes much. <{POST_SNAPBACK}> Â Where in Britain would you run another GP, Coventry was used before but the crowds were quite small compared to European venues. If the ACU asked for the European GP as well as the British GP you may get two, but if they don't ask they can't expect to be given more. Â Most of the GP riders ride in the Swedish and Polish league so there's less home track advantage than is assumed. Â The schedule is for financial reasons not rider advantage, if IMG think it would benefit them to run in Russia next year instead of Sweden they will go there. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kevin Meynell Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 Can anybody explain to me, in simple terms, why Poland & Sweden get two Grands Prix every year? Â Rumour has it that it was some contractual agreement from when BSI took over the SGP. We can speculate why this might be the case, but 'smoothing the waters' may have had something to do with it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kevin Meynell Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 if IMG think it would benefit them to run in Russia next year instead of Sweden they will go there. Â Organising events in Russia is a nightmare. Every last official sticks their hand-out for sort of payoff, otherwise important stuff tends to get 'delayed', or people take inopportune 'holidays'. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rob B Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 That makes no sense - so if Denmark didn't have Parken or we didn't have the Millennium, we could have two as well? Surely it just gives an advantage to riders who prefer the bigger tracks of Poland and eastern Europe, although it doesn't seem to help Swedes much. <{POST_SNAPBACK}> Â Not Denmark but yes if we didn't have Cardiff think there would be a good chance of us having two. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
The Know Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 Not Denmark but yes if we didn't have Cardiff think there would be a good chance of us having two. <{POST_SNAPBACK}> Dont think so. Poland and sweden pay far more for the right to stage the g.p. than the uk would. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mateusz Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 Can anybody explain to me, in simple terms, why Poland & Sweden get two Grands Prix every year? <{POST_SNAPBACK}> I'd rather ask the question why GB gets one Grand Prix only? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
alan_boon Posted September 25, 2007 Author Report Share Posted September 25, 2007 It would seem to me that a better way would be:  1 GP every year - Poland, Sweden, GB, Denmark  plus 1 GP every four years - Poland, Sweden, GB, Denmark  1 GP every other year - Czech Republic, Germany  1 GP every three years - Italy, Russia, Slovenia  1 GP every four years - Finland, Latvia, Austria, Norway  That's only 8, I realise! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ajh Posted September 25, 2007 Report Share Posted September 25, 2007 I think a lot of it is to do with the cost of staging the GP's in the larger national stadiums. Â For example if there are 2 GP's in the UK it may well result in a lower crowd at Cardiff as people may wait for a GP closer to home. Certainly if there was a second GP in the UK it minimises the impact of Cardiff. I imagine the same applies to Copenhagen as well. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ghostwalker Posted September 25, 2007 Report Share Posted September 25, 2007 Where in Britain would you run another GP, Coventry was used before but the crowds were quite small compared to European venues. If the ACU asked for the European GP as well as the British GP you may get two, but if they don't ask they can't expect to be given more. Â Most of the GP riders ride in the Swedish and Polish league so there's less home track advantage than is assumed. Â The schedule is for financial reasons not rider advantage, if IMG think it would benefit them to run in Russia next year instead of Sweden they will go there. <{POST_SNAPBACK}> Â wembley? or is it to big? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
orion Posted September 25, 2007 Report Share Posted September 25, 2007 Because if had two in the uk nicholls and harris would finish in the top eight every year and the poles would have no one quite simple really . Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mateusz Posted September 25, 2007 Report Share Posted September 25, 2007 Because if had two in the uk nicholls and harris would finish in the top eight every year and the poles would have no one quite simple really . <{POST_SNAPBACK}> ..maybe. Otherwise they have to beg Brits governing SGP to give them wild cards each year. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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