saintschris Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 How come every year the so called "European GP" is in Poland and in some cases it is even named as the polish grand prix surely if they insist on having a "European GP" shouldn't it be in a different country each year as from now on i can't see why there can't be 2 GPs in Britain one at Cardiff and one at Wembley dont no whether you agree or not but i just think its unfair that there is 2 in Poland every year. Also to prove im not being biased to England how come the Scandinavean Gp is allways in Sweden when there are 2 other Countries. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Schumi Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 (edited) It was the same in F1 - the European GP was in Germany, which also holds it's own race. And France has two as well. Edited May 2, 2007 by Schumi Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kevin Meynell Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 How come every year the so called "European GP" is in Poland and in some cases it is even named as the polish grand prix surely if they insist on having a "European GP" shouldn't it be in a different country each year I think, although I could be wrong, that the general FIM rules don't allow a country to stage more than one GP as a 'national' GP. The 'European' and 'Scandinavian' tags are therefore to get around the issue of having two GPs in the same country. AFAIK, it's the same in road racing (also run under FIM auspices) as well, which is why only one of their three GPs is officially the Spanish GP, and the others are the Catalonian and Valencian GPs respectively. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kevin Meynell Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 And France has two as well. Does it? I assume you're referring to the Monaco GP which is in fact in the sovereign state of Monaco? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Subedei Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 Italy used to have a couple, since the San Marino circuit was, if memory serves, not in San Marino. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Schumi Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 (edited) Does it? I assume you're referring to the Monaco GP which is in fact in the sovereign state of Monaco? <{POST_SNAPBACK}> I just knew you'd pick up on that. Okay, so Monaco may be it's own principality, but the "Treaty Designed to Adapt and Uphold the Friendly and Cooperative Relations Between the French Republic and the Principality of Monaco" guarantees the integrity of Monaco's territory "as if this territory were part of/belonged to the French Territory." and vice versa. Monaco's defence is the responsibility of France. So whilst you're right technically, it seems they only want to be independent when it suits them. Edited May 2, 2007 by Schumi Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kevin Meynell Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 Italy used to have a couple, since the San Marino circuit was, if memory serves, not in San Marino. Not in San Marino, but staged on behalf of San Marino. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Subedei Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 Not in San Marino, but staged on behalf of San Marino. <{POST_SNAPBACK}> Could be staged on behalf of Outer Mongolia, still held in Italy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
AndyM Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 Yes, I was wondering whether the Vatican GP would be staged at Nuremberg on behalf of Pope Benedict.... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kevin Meynell Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 So whilst you're right technically, it seems they only want to be independent when it suits them. Most microstates have agreements with their neighbours for defence and external relations. In the case of Monaco, France has long sought to annex it, and forced it to sign a treaty that stated Monaco would become part of France if the ruling prince died without an heir. Until recently, the inability of Prince Albert to produce a male heir would have meant the end of Monaco as a sovereign state upon his death. However, Monaco changed the law to thwart the French by allowing females to accede to the title. So I think Monaco would quite like to be independent. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Schumi Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 Until recently, the inability of Prince Albert to produce a male heir would have meant the end of Monaco as a sovereign state upon his death. However, Monaco changed the law to thwart the French by allowing females to accede to the title. <{POST_SNAPBACK}> Now you're being pedantic. If they truly wanted independence they should be worrying about their own defence, not relying on France to help them out. Also, Prince Albert does have a son and heir, and that law actually states there doesn't even have to be an heir for Monaco to remain independent. Which is quite handy seeing as he won't recognise either of his children legally anyway. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
AndyM Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 This is getting very silly - worthy of a Monty Python sketch! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kevin Meynell Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 Now you're being pedantic. If they truly wanted independence they should be worrying about their own defence, not relying on France to help them out. Iceland has no armed forces whatsoever and completely relies on NATO for its defence. I think none of the Baltic states have an air force and contract the Luftwaffe to patrol their airspace. Does anyone argue they're not legitimate sovereign states? Also, Prince Albert does have a son and heir He does now, but he didn't have a legitimate heir for a long time. that law actually states there doesn't even have to be an heir for Monaco to remain independent. Because the law was changed in 2002, in response to the succession 'crisis'. I'd agree that Monaco is more-or-less a vassal state of France, but this arrangement is by no means without precedent in the world. However, whilst it was reasonable to call the (former) San Marino GP a second Italian GP, the Monaco GP has a long independent history and was an initiative of Monegasques. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Schumi Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 I'd agree that Monaco is more-or-less a vassal state of France <{POST_SNAPBACK}> That's all I wanted to hear. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Subedei Posted May 2, 2007 Report Share Posted May 2, 2007 How come every year the so called "European GP" is in Poland and in some cases it is even named as the polish grand prix surely if they insist on having a "European GP" shouldn't it be in a different country each year as from now on i can't see why there can't be 2 GPs in Britain one at Cardiff and one at Wembley dont no whether you agree or not but i just think its unfair that there is 2 in Poland every year. Also to prove im not being biased to England how come the Scandinavean Gp is allways in Sweden when there are 2 other Countries. <{POST_SNAPBACK}> Anyway, to get back to your original point. The GPs are, as I understand it, largely promoted by local organisations. Thus, the GPs go where people are willing to stump up the readies and promote a GP. Poland and Sweden obviously have more than one organisation willing to promote a GP, so BSI and the FIM give the additional GP a different name. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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